Results
#1. The process by which instruments are sterilized quickly for urgent use is called:
Correct Answer: Immediate use steam sterilization (IUSS)
Explanation: IUSS is a defined process used when there isn’t enough time to use standard packaging or wrapped sterilization methods, typically reserved for urgent situations.
#2. Semi-critical items must receive, at minimum, which level of reprocessing before use?
Correct Answer: High-level disinfection
Explanation: Because semi-critical items contact mucous membranes, they require high-level disinfection to eliminate nearly all microorganisms.
#3. This agency issues regulations to help ensure medical devices are safe:
Correct Answer: FDA
Explanation: The FDA regulates the safety and effectiveness of medical devices sold in the U.S., separate from EPA (environmental) or OSHA (worker safety).
#4. Pneumatic hoses used with powered surgical equipment should be:
Correct Answer: Pressurized to check for leaks as part of inspection
Explanation: Pressurizing hoses helps identify air leaks or damage that could compromise powered instrument performance during a procedure.
#5. Dark spots visible on an endoscope’s lens typically indicate:
Correct Answer: Damaged light fibers
Explanation: Dark areas within the fiber bundle usually signal broken fiber optic strands, which reduce light transmission and image quality.
#6. Instrument washer racks and conveyor systems should be inspected:
Correct Answer: Daily
Explanation: Daily inspection catches wear, damage, or blockages early, ensuring the washer continues to clean instruments effectively.
#7. Hypoglycemia refers to:
Correct Answer: Low blood sugar
Explanation: “Hypo-” means low/below, and “-glycemia” relates to blood sugar levels.
#8. The process by which instruments are sterilized quickly for urgent use is called:
Correct Answer: Immediate use steam sterilization (IUSS)
Explanation: IUSS is a defined process used when there isn’t enough time to use standard packaging or wrapped sterilization methods, typically reserved for urgent situations.
#9. After testing a multi-part instrument’s functionality, it should be:
Correct Answer: Disassembled and sterilized following the manufacturer’s IFU
Explanation: Manufacturer instructions specify exact disassembly and sterilization parameters needed to ensure all instrument surfaces are properly sterilized.
#10. In medical terminology, the part of a word that carries its primary/core meaning is the:
Correct Answer: Root word
Explanation: The root word forms the foundational meaning of a medical term, while prefixes and suffixes modify or add detail to that core meaning.
#11. One purpose of point-of-use treatment before transport is to:
Correct Answer: Reduce the risk of cross-contamination
Explanation: Point-of-use treatment (keeping instruments moist, removing gross soil) limits contamination risk to staff and the environment during transport.
#12. Decontamination of a surgical instrument should begin:
Correct Answer: At the point of use, immediately after the procedure
Explanation: Starting decontamination immediately (e.g., wiping off gross debris, keeping instruments moist) prevents bioburden from drying and hardening, which makes later cleaning much harder.
#13. If a soiled instrument is discovered during clean assembly, the correct action is to:
Correct Answer: Send the instrument and its tray back to decontamination
Explanation: Once contamination is found in a clean area, the entire tray must be treated as compromised and reprocessed from the start to ensure safety.
#14. The medical term “subcutaneous” refers to a location:
Correct Answer: Beneath the skin
Explanation: “Sub-” means below/under, and “cutaneous” relates to skin — together describing tissue just underneath the skin’s surface.
#15. Understanding medical terminology primarily helps SP technicians:
Correct Answer: Provide the OR and medical staff with the goods and services needed
Explanation: Terminology fluency allows SP techs to correctly interpret requests, IFUs, and procedural needs to supply the right instruments and sets.
#16. Rinsing instruments during decontamination should take place in:
Correct Answer: A sink dedicated specifically to rinsing
Explanation: Dedicated rinse sinks prevent chemical residue or cross-contamination between cleaning, rinsing, and hand hygiene tasks.
#17. Automatic dosing units are used to:
Correct Answer: Deliver a consistent, accurate amount of detergent to water
Explanation: Automatic dosing systems ensure the correct detergent-to-water ratio every cycle, improving cleaning consistency and reducing human error.
#18. Cleaning brushes used in decontamination should:
Correct Answer: Be decontaminated following the manufacturer’s IFU
Explanation: Brushes themselves can become contaminated and must be reprocessed according to manufacturer guidance to avoid becoming a source of cross-contamination.
#19. A periosteal elevator is primarily used to:
Correct Answer: Lift and separate the periosteum from bone
Explanation: This instrument gently detaches the periosteum (connective tissue covering bone) to expose the bone surface during orthopedic or reconstructive procedures.
#20. Understanding anatomy helps SP technicians primarily by allowing them to:
Correct Answer: Understand where in the body instruments are used
Explanation: Knowing anatomy helps techs understand instrument function and procedural context, which supports correct handling and assembly.
#21. Surgical removal of the uterus is called a:
Correct Answer: Hysterectomy
Explanation: “Hyster/o” refers to the uterus, and “-ectomy” means surgical removal.
#22. Instrument trays needed for a full day of scheduled procedures are typically pulled:
Correct Answer: The day or evening before
Explanation: Pulling case carts in advance allows time for verification, assembly, and sterilization before the scheduled procedure.
#23. Under the Spaulding Classification, semi-critical items are those that:
Correct Answer: Contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin
Explanation: Semi-critical items require at minimum high-level disinfection because mucous membranes are more susceptible to infection than intact skin, but the item doesn’t enter sterile tissue.
#24. Bacteria that can survive without oxygen are called:
Correct Answer: Anaerobic
Explanation: Anaerobic organisms grow in oxygen-poor environments, unlike aerobic bacteria, which require oxygen to survive.
#25. Airflow in the decontamination area of an SPD should be:
Correct Answer: Negative
Explanation: Negative airflow keeps contaminated air from escaping into cleaner adjacent areas, helping contain potential pathogens to the decon space.
#26. The prefix “hypo-” means:
Correct Answer: Below
Explanation: “Hypo-” indicates a deficiency or position below normal, as in “hypoglycemia” (low blood sugar).
#27. An osteotome is an instrument used to:
Correct Answer: Cut or shave bone
Explanation: Osteotomes are chisel-like surgical instruments designed specifically for cutting or shaping bone.
#28. This federal agency can intervene in worker safety matters even without a specific existing regulation:
Correct Answer: OSHA
Explanation: OSHA’s General Duty Clause allows it to cite employers for hazards even when no specific standard exists, as long as the hazard is recognized and could cause harm.
#29. To help prevent aerosolization during manual cleaning, instruments should be brushed:
Correct Answer: Below the surface of the water
Explanation: Brushing below the waterline traps contaminants in the water rather than releasing them into the air as aerosolized particles.
#30. Pasteurizers disinfect items using:
Correct Answer: Heated water
Explanation: Pasteurization uses controlled hot water temperatures over a set time to achieve high-level disinfection, commonly for respiratory equipment.
#31. The pupil of the eye is best described as the:
Correct Answer: Opening that regulates light entry
Explanation: The pupil is the black circular opening in the center of the iris that dilates or constricts to control the amount of light reaching the retina.
#32. Soiled instruments arriving at the SPD are first received in the:
Correct Answer: Decontamination area
Explanation: All contaminated items must pass through decontamination before moving further into the clean processing workflow.
#33. Point-of-use treatment should generally occur within what timeframe after a procedure ends?
Correct Answer: Within two hours
Explanation: Delaying point-of-use treatment allows bioburden to dry, making it significantly harder to remove during later cleaning.
#34. The surgical repair of the eardrum to restore sound transmission is called a:
Correct Answer: Tympanoplasty
Explanation: “Tympan/o” refers to the eardrum, and “-plasty” means surgical repair or reconstruction.
#35. Prions are best described as:
Correct Answer: Misfolded, infectious proteins
Explanation: Prions have no DNA or RNA — they’re abnormal proteins that trigger normal proteins to misfold, and they resist standard sterilization methods.
#36. Which task makes up a significant portion of daily work in the sterile storage area?
Correct Answer: Receiving and stocking supplies
Explanation: Sterile storage staff spend much of their time receiving, verifying, and properly storing sterile supplies to maintain inventory and sterility integrity.
#37. Steam sterilization is the most widely used sterilization method in healthcare mainly because it:
Correct Answer: Cycles are fast and cost effective
Explanation: Steam sterilization is favored because it’s fast, inexpensive, non-toxic, and easy to monitor, making it the default choice for compatible instruments.
#38. Before placing sterile items on a shelf, staff should check:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation: A full check ensures the item is still sterile and safe for use — any single compromised element (torn packaging, expired date, broken seal) can affect sterility.
#39. Test strips used to verify minimum effective concentration (MEC) in high-level disinfectant solutions should be used:
Correct Answer: Each time the solution will be used
Explanation: MEC can degrade with repeated use or dilution over time, so testing before each use ensures the solution is still effective.
#40. Electronic testing of laparoscopic instrument insulation should be performed:
Correct Answer: In the clean assembly area before set assembly
Explanation: Testing insulation integrity before assembly ensures damaged instruments (which risk unintended patient burns) are caught before reaching the sterile field.
#41. Before placing sterile items on a shelf, staff should check:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation: A full check ensures the item is still sterile and safe for use — any single compromised element (torn packaging, expired date, broken seal) can affect sterility.
#42. The classification system used to categorize patient care items by infection risk is called the:
Correct Answer: Spaulding classification
Explanation: This system sorts items into critical, semi-critical, and non-critical categories based on infection risk, determining the required level of reprocessing.
#43. Peel pouches must be sized correctly to allow for:
Correct Answer: Adequate air removal, sterilant penetration, and drying
Explanation: An oversized or undersized pouch can prevent proper sterilization by trapping air or restricting sterilant contact and drying.
#44. Which statement about mechanical washers is FALSE?
Correct Answer: All items should be washed together regardless of type
Explanation: Items must be loaded appropriately by type and complexity to ensure water and detergent contact all surfaces — mixing incompatible items compromises cleaning.
#45. Skeletal muscles are best described as:
Correct Answer: Consciously controlled
Explanation: Unlike smooth or cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle contracts voluntarily under conscious control to produce movement.
#46. Chemical indicators (CIs) are classified by the FDA as:
Correct Answer: Class II devices
Explanation: CIs are FDA-regulated Class II medical devices because they play a role in verifying sterilization process parameters were met.
#47. The CDC’s role in healthcare includes:
Correct Answer: Responding to public health emergencies
Explanation: The CDC’s core mission is disease prevention, control, and emergency public health response — it does not regulate medical devices (that’s the FDA).
#48. When donning PPE, which item is typically put on first?
Correct Answer: Gown
Explanation: The gown goes on before gloves so that glove cuffs can be pulled over and seal the gown sleeves, maintaining a protective barrier.
#49. The muscular system contributes to the body by:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation: Muscles generate movement through contraction, produce heat as a metabolic byproduct, and skeletal/cardiac muscle activity supports circulation.
#50. Robotic surgical instruments typically:
Correct Answer: Contain mechanical and electrical components near the proximal end
Explanation: These components allow the instrument to interface with the robotic system, and they require careful handling during cleaning due to their sensitivity.
#51. Items being transported to and from the SPD should be contained primarily to:
Correct Answer: Minimize the spread of microorganisms
Explanation: Proper containment during transport is a key infection control measure, preventing contamination from spreading to other areas of the facility.
#52. The measurement of how acidic or alkaline a solution is called:
Correct Answer: pH
Explanation: pH measures hydrogen ion concentration on a scale from 0 (acidic) to 14 (alkaline), which is critical for choosing compatible cleaning chemicals.
#53. Detergents used in mechanical washing equipment should be:
Correct Answer: Low foaming
Explanation: Excess foam can interfere with a mechanical washer’s spray patterns and sensors, reducing cleaning effectiveness.
#54. Mold, mushrooms, and yeast all belong to which classification?
Correct Answer: Fungi
Explanation: Fungi are a distinct biological kingdom separate from bacteria, encompassing molds, yeasts, and mushrooms.
#55. Disorders affecting the muscles, nerves, tendons, or joints due to repetitive strain are called:
Correct Answer: Musculoskeletal disorders
Explanation: MSDs result from repeated stress or strain on the body’s musculoskeletal system, common in physically repetitive jobs like SPD work.
#56. Treating instruments at the point of use is important primarily because it:
Correct Answer: Helps prolong the instrument’s lifespan
Explanation: Preventing bioburden from drying onto the instrument surface reduces damage and corrosion risk over time, extending its usable life.
#57. Working effectively in the decontamination area requires knowledge of:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation: Decon techs must understand how organisms spread, how chemicals neutralize them, and what each instrument requires to be cleaned correctly.
#58. An instrument with a shiny, reflective surface is described as having a:
Correct Answer: Mirror finish
Explanation: Mirror-finished instruments have a highly polished surface, contrasted with satin or matte finishes that scatter light and reduce glare.
#59. Implantable devices should:
Correct Answer: Not be processed with IUSS unless a tracking system exists to trace the item to the patient
Explanation: Because implants carry higher infection risk, traceability is essential in case of a sterilization failure or recall.
#60. The best method for cleaning a suction lumen is:
Correct Answer: Using the proper sized brush
Explanation: A correctly sized brush provides the mechanical action needed to dislodge debris from inside the lumen — water or soaking alone isn’t sufficient.
#61. The absence of disease-causing microorganisms is called:
Correct Answer: Asepsis
Explanation: Asepsis specifically refers to a state free of pathogenic organisms, which is the goal aseptic technique works to maintain.
#62. Arthroscopy instruments are primarily used during:
Correct Answer: Joint surgery
Explanation: Arthroscopy is a minimally invasive technique specifically used to visualize and treat joint structures like the knee or shoulder.
#63. Gram-positive bacteria stain which color under a Gram stain test?
Correct Answer: Purple
Explanation: Gram-positive bacteria retain crystal violet dye due to their thick peptidoglycan cell wall, staining purple under the microscope.
#64. Which body system provides overall shape and structural support?
Correct Answer: Skeletal
Explanation: Bones form the body’s rigid framework, giving it shape and supporting soft tissues and organs.
#65. A surgical abbreviation associated with treating a fractured bone is:
Correct Answer: ORIF
Explanation: ORIF (Open Reduction Internal Fixation) is a surgical procedure to realign and stabilize a fractured bone using hardware like plates or screws.
#66. Surgical removal of the stomach is called a:
Correct Answer: Gastrectomy
Explanation: The suffix “-ectomy” means surgical removal, and “gastr/o” refers to the stomach.
#67. Organisms that cause disease in a host are classified as:
Correct Answer: Pathogens
Explanation: “Pathogen” is a general term for any microorganism capable of causing disease, regardless of Gram stain classification.
#68. The “one-way flow of materials” concept in SPD refers to:
Correct Answer: Movement from soiled/decontamination areas toward clean processing areas
Explanation: One-way workflow prevents cross-contamination by ensuring instruments always move from dirty to clean, never backward.
#69. When removing personal protective equipment (PPE), the first item removed should be:
Correct Answer: Gloves
Explanation: Gloves are typically the most contaminated PPE item, so removing them first minimizes the risk of transferring pathogens to other surfaces or PPE during doffing.
#70. Departmental dress codes in the SPD apply to:
Correct Answer: Everyone entering the SPD
Explanation: Dress code and traffic control policies apply universally to protect the sterile processing environment, regardless of role or visit duration.
#71. Instruments with tungsten carbide jaws are typically identified by:
Correct Answer: Gold handles
Explanation: Gold-colored handles are a standard visual indicator that an instrument has tungsten carbide inserts, which are harder and require different handling than standard stainless steel.
#72. The term “septorhinoplasty” refers to:
Correct Answer: Surgical repair of the nose
Explanation: “Rhin/o” refers to the nose, “-plasty” means surgical repair, and “septo-” specifies involvement of the nasal septum.
#73. Understanding medical terminology primarily helps SPD technicians:
Correct Answer: Interpret manufacturer instructions for use (IFUs)
Explanation: IFUs are often written using precise medical and anatomical terms, so understanding terminology ensures instruments are reprocessed correctly.
#74. MedWatch is best described as:
Correct Answer: A voluntary program for reporting device-related problems
Explanation: MedWatch is the FDA’s safety information and adverse event reporting program, allowing healthcare workers to voluntarily report issues with medical devices.
#75. The time an item must remain in contact with a disinfectant to achieve disinfection is called:
Correct Answer: Wet contact time
Explanation: Wet contact time ensures the disinfectant has adequate exposure duration on all surfaces to inactivate microorganisms.
#76. Aseptic technique refers to:
Correct Answer: Practices that prevent the spread of infection
Explanation: Aseptic technique is the set of practices used to minimize contamination and protect patients from pathogens during clinical procedures.
#77. Filter retention plates on rigid containers should be:
Correct Answer: Removed from the container and lid and cleaned separately
Explanation: Removing retention plates allows thorough cleaning of all surfaces, including areas that would otherwise be blocked while attached.
#78. The virus responsible for Hepatitis B is primarily transmitted through:
Correct Answer: Blood
Explanation: Hepatitis B spreads through contact with infected blood or certain other bodily fluids, making sharps safety and PPE critical in preventing exposure.
#79. Special attire worn by SP techs to reduce bloodborne pathogen exposure is called:
Correct Answer: Personal protective equipment (PPE)
Explanation: PPE is the standardized term for gear like gloves, gowns, and eye protection used to reduce exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
#80. AORN is best described as:
Correct Answer: A voluntary professional organization that writes OR guidelines
Explanation: AORN develops evidence-based recommended practices for perioperative nursing, but compliance is voluntary unless adopted by a facility’s policy.
#81. The FDA’s role regarding sterile processing equipment is to:
Correct Answer: Ensure devices can be effectively cleaned and sterilized
Explanation: The FDA reviews and clears medical devices in part based on whether manufacturers can demonstrate the device can be reliably cleaned, disinfected, or sterilized for reuse.
#82. In medical terminology, a prefix is generally positioned:
Correct Answer: Before the root word
Explanation: Prefixes attach to the beginning of a root word to modify or add to its meaning.
#83. The abbreviation BKA stands for:
Correct Answer: Below-knee amputation
Explanation: BKA describes surgical removal of the lower leg below the knee joint.
#84. The prefix “hemi-” means:
Correct Answer: Half
Explanation: “Hemi-” is a prefix indicating one half of something, as in “hemisphere.”
#85. Special attire worn by SP technicians to minimize bloodborne pathogen exposure is called:
Correct Answer: Personal protective equipment (PPE)
Explanation: PPE is the standard term for gear like gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection used to reduce exposure risk.
#86. Contaminated items may be returned to the SPD:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation: Multiple valid pathways exist for returning soiled items to SPD, as long as proper containment and handling protocols are followed.
#87. Healthcare regulations and standards primarily help ensure:
Correct Answer: Minimum levels of quality and safety
Explanation: Regulatory standards set a consistent baseline that protects patients and staff, rather than addressing operational or pay-related matters.
#88. Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs) are defined as infections that:
Correct Answer: Occur on or after day three of hospitalization
Explanation: This timeframe helps distinguish infections acquired during a hospital stay from ones the patient already had upon admission.
#89. Which organism has no independent means of movement?
Correct Answer: Virus
Explanation: Viruses lack flagella or other motility structures and rely entirely on host cells to replicate and spread.
#90. The term “laminectomy” refers to:
Correct Answer: Removal of part of the vertebrae in the spine
Explanation: “Lamin/o” refers to the lamina (part of a vertebra), and “-ectomy” means surgical removal.
#91. The clean assembly area of an SPD typically falls under which traffic control classification?
Correct Answer: Semi-restricted
Explanation: Semi-restricted areas require specific attire (like scrubs and hair covers) and limit traffic to reduce contamination risk during clean instrument assembly.
#92. Device-related problems are reported to the FDA through:
Correct Answer: The MedWatch Program
Explanation: MedWatch is the FDA’s official system for voluntary reporting of adverse events and problems involving medical devices.
#93. Count sheets are used to:
Correct Answer: Provide a detailed list of tray contents
Explanation: Count sheets itemize every instrument that belongs in a set, supporting accurate assembly and inventory verification.
#94. Enzymes commonly used to break down fatty deposits on instruments are:
Correct Answer: Lipase enzymes
Explanation: Lipase enzymes specifically target and break down fat-based bioburden, while protease and amylase target proteins and starches respectively.
#95. The suffix “-ectomy” means:
Correct Answer: Surgical removal
Explanation: This suffix consistently indicates that all or part of an organ or tissue is being surgically taken out.
#96. The suffix “-itis” means:
Correct Answer: Inflammation
Explanation: This suffix consistently indicates swelling or irritation of a body part, as in “arthritis” (joint inflammation).
#97. The inner lining of the uterus is called the:
Correct Answer: Endometrium
Explanation: The endometrium is the tissue layer lining the uterine cavity, which thickens and sheds during the menstrual cycle.
#98. Which organization conducts onsite surveys of healthcare facilities for accreditation purposes?
Correct Answer: The Joint Commission (TJC)
Explanation: TJC performs onsite accreditation surveys to verify healthcare organizations meet safety and quality standards.
#99. Which of the following is not an acceptable sterilization packaging material?
Correct Answer: Canvas
Explanation: Canvas is too thick and non-porous for proper sterilant penetration and air removal, making it unsuitable as a wrap material.
#100. A surgical procedure that creates an opening into the skull is called a/an:
Correct Answer: Craniotomy
Explanation: A craniotomy involves cutting a bone flap from the skull to access the brain, which is later replaced — distinct from a craniectomy, where the bone is not replaced.
#101. A common cause of a clogged drain screen is:
Correct Answer: Wrapper particles
Explanation: Loose fibers or debris from packaging materials can accumulate and block drain screens over time.
#102. Hand hygiene sinks in the decontamination area should be:
Correct Answer: A separate sink dedicated only to handwashing
Explanation: Using a dedicated hand-hygiene sink prevents cross-contamination between instrument cleaning water/chemicals and staff hand hygiene.
#103. When soiled instruments must be transported to an offsite processing facility, they should be handled following:
Correct Answer: Federal and state Department of Transportation regulations
Explanation: Offsite transport of biohazardous/contaminated instruments is legally regulated by DOT guidelines to protect public safety during transit.
#104. Steam sterilization is the most widely used sterilization method in healthcare mainly because it:
Correct Answer: Cycles are fast and cost effective
Explanation: Steam sterilization is favored because it’s fast, inexpensive, non-toxic, and easy to monitor, making it the default choice for compatible instruments.
#105. A body system is best defined as:
Correct Answer: A group of organs working together for a shared function
Explanation: Body systems (like the digestive or respiratory system) consist of multiple organs cooperating to carry out a specific physiological role.
#106. A small barcode containing instrument information applied with pressure-sensitive tape is called a:
Correct Answer: Dot marking system
Explanation: Dot marking uses an adhesive label containing a barcode, unlike dot peen or laser etching, which physically mark the instrument surface.
#107. Which organ regulates body temperature through perspiration?
Correct Answer: Skin
Explanation: Sweat glands in the skin release moisture that evaporates to cool the body, making skin a key organ in thermoregulation.
#108. Maintaining patient confidentiality falls under which category of workplace conduct?
Correct Answer: Legal responsibilities
Explanation: Confidentiality is protected by law (HIPAA), making it a legal obligation, not just a workplace expectation.
#109. Before returning loaner instruments to a vendor, they should be:
Correct Answer: Cleaned and decontaminated
Explanation: Facilities must decontaminate loaner instruments before shipping them back to protect the vendor and anyone handling the return shipment.
#110. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is classified by which bacterial shape?
Correct Answer: Rod
Explanation: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a rod-shaped (bacillus) bacterium commonly associated with biofilm formation on medical equipment.
#111. Soiled instruments first arrive at which area of the SPD?
Correct Answer: Decontamination
Explanation: All contaminated instruments enter the SPD through decontamination first, before ever reaching clean assembly or sterilization stages.
#112. The smallest structural and functional unit of a living organism is the:
Correct Answer: Cell
Explanation: Cells are the basic building blocks of all living tissue, containing the nucleus and cytoplasm as internal components.
#113. To thoroughly rinse detergent from a rigid endoscope’s channels, technicians should use:
Correct Answer: Water quality recommended in the manufacturer’s IFU
Explanation: Manufacturers specify required water quality (e.g., critical or sterile water) to prevent mineral deposits or contamination inside delicate channels.
#114. A herniorrhaphy is a surgical procedure to:
Correct Answer: Repair a weakened area allowing an organ to protrude
Explanation: “Herni-” refers to hernia, and “-rrhaphy” means surgical repair by suturing.
#115. Proper training in low-temperature sterilization is critical mainly because:
Correct Answer: The chemicals used can be toxic
Explanation: Low-temperature methods often rely on chemical sterilants (like hydrogen peroxide gas or EO), which pose health risks if handled incorrectly.
#116. Which virus is NOT primarily spread by the airborne or droplet route?
Correct Answer: Ebola
Explanation: Ebola spreads through direct contact with infected bodily fluids, not through airborne or droplet transmission like the other viruses listed.
#117. The ability to kill or control the growth of living organisms is called:
Correct Answer: Biocidal
Explanation: “Biocidal” describes any agent or process capable of destroying or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.
#118. Microbiology is defined as the scientific study of:
Correct Answer: Microorganisms specifically
Explanation: Microbiology focuses on organisms too small to see with the naked eye — bacteria, viruses, fungi, and similar life forms.
#119. Microorganisms that form a protective outer wall to survive harsh conditions are called:
Correct Answer: Spores
Explanation: Spores are a dormant, highly resistant form some bacteria enter to survive extreme heat, dryness, or chemical exposure — which is why sterilization must be validated against spore-forming organisms.
#120. Kerrison and laminectomy rongeurs should be function-tested using:
Correct Answer: A plastic dowel rod
Explanation: These rongeurs are tested for sharpness and proper bite by cleanly cutting through a plastic dowel rod, simulating bone or tissue resistance.
#121. To properly dry the internal channels (lumens) of instruments, technicians should:
Correct Answer: Use instrument air
Explanation: Instrument air is filtered and pressure-controlled specifically for safely drying narrow lumens without damaging or contaminating them.
#122. Which of these microbes is classified as gram-positive?
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: Staph aureus retains crystal violet stain due to its thick cell wall, classifying it as gram-positive, unlike the gram-negative organisms listed.
#123. Personal electronics should not be brought into SP work areas primarily because they:
Correct Answer: Can harbor microorganisms
Explanation: Personal devices like phones are rarely disinfected and can introduce contamination into a controlled clean environment.
#124. To protect against splashes in the decontamination area, SP techs should wear:
Correct Answer: Fluid-resistant gowns
Explanation: Fluid-resistant gowns provide a barrier against contaminated fluid splashes and sprays common during manual cleaning.
#125. Responsibility for proper handling of surgical instrumentation belongs to:
Correct Answer: Everyone who comes into contact with the instruments
Explanation: Instrument care is a shared responsibility across the entire surgical chain — from OR staff to SPD — since mishandling at any point can compromise patient safety.